Excretory Products and their Elimination
1. The thick muscular projection on the wall of ventricles is/are called as
1) truncus arteriosus 2) conus arteriosus
3) columnae corneae 4) chordae tendinae
2. How many times an RBC will have to pass through the heart in its journey from hepatic artery to the aorta?
1) two times 2) only once 3) several times 4) four times
3. Correct pathway of glomerular filtrate/urine elimination is
1) filtrate → renal pelvis → calyces → renal papillae → ureter → urinary bladder
2) filtrate → renal papillae → calyces → renal pelvis → ureter → urinary bladder
3) filtrate → renal papillae → calyces → renal pelvis → urethra
4) filtrate → renal papillae → calyces → renal pelvis → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra
4. From the dialyser, cleared blood is pumped back into a vein after adding
1) heparin 2) anti heparin 3) dialysate 4) water
5. To convert ammonia into urea, the liver cells require
1) water 2) sulphur 3) oxygen 4) carbon dioxide
6. Non selective process during urine formation occurs in
1) PCT 2) DCT 3) collecting duct 4) Bowman's capsule
7. Ammonia is produced in the metabolism of
1) proteins only 2) nucleic acids only 3) proteins and nucleic acids 4) carbohydrates
8. Study the following substances.
A) urea B) ammonia C) uric acid arrange them as per increasing order of their toxicity
1) CAB 2) ABC 3) CBA 4) BAC
9. In the following vertebrates, kidneys have less role in the excretion of nitrogenous waste material
1) bony fishes 2) cartilaginous fishes 3) amphibians 4) reptiles
10.There is no sugar in the urine. The blood entering the kidney has more sugar than the blood leaving the kidney, because
1) sugar is absorbed by loop of Henle
2) sugar is used by kidney cells in metabolism
3) sugar is absorbed by PCT
4) sugar is absorbed by urinary bladder
11. An increase in the number of cells that phagocytose antigen - antibody complexes is
1) polycythemia 2) eosinophilia 3) erythrocytopenia 4) leukopenia
12. Collecting ducts unite to form
1) duct of Bellini 2) column of Bertin 3) macula densa 4) loop of Henle
13. The urine of normal person does not show the presence of compounds like
1) ammonia, albumin 2) creatinine, ammonia 3) albumin, glucose 4) oxalic acid and hippuric acid
14. In micturition
1) urethra relaxes 2) ureter relaxes 3) ureter constricts 4) urethra contracts
15. During the blood coagulation, x is released at the site of an injury, identify it.
1) prothrombinase 2) prothrombin
3) thromboplastin 4) fibrinogen
16. Assertion (A): In arteriosclerosis, clot formation in coronary artery may lead to heart attack.
Reason (R): Cholesterol deposition and calcification cause hardening of arteries.
1) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is wrong.
4) A is wrong but R is correct.
17. Assertion (A): Glomerular filtration does not require the expenditure of energy by kidney cells.
Reason (R): Afferent arterioles are narrower than the glomerular capillaries, so there is continuous process of glomerular filtration.
1) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is wrong.
4) A is wrong but R is correct.
18. Arrange the following in a sequence of blood flow from the abdominal organs to lungs.
A) pulmonary arch B) right atrium
C) inferior vena cava D) right ventricle E) pulmonary artery
1) CDBAE 2) CBDAE 3) BCDAE 4) DCBEA
19. Note the following.
A) systemic heart B) bronchial heart C) single circulation
D) incomplete double circulation
E) two chambered heart Which of the above are true about fishes?
1) A, C, E 2) B, D, E 3) B, C, E 4) A, B, C
20. Fossa ovalis is located on
1) inter atrial septum of the adult heart
2) inter ventricular septum of the adult heart
3) inter atrial septum of the foetal heart
4) inter ventricular septum of foetal heart
21. Mitral valve prevents the backward flow of
1) deoxygenated blood into the adult atrium
2) oxygenated blood into the right atrium
3) deoxygenated blood into the left atrium
4) oxygenated blood into the left atrium
22. In the mechanism of blood clotting step II involves the conversion of
1) prothrombin to thrombin
2) prothrombin activator to prothrombin
3) fibrinogen to fibrin
4) thrombin to prothrombin
23. A patient has 90 ml of blood in each ventricle at the end of atrial systole and 40 ml of blood in each ventricle at the end of ventricular systole. His heart rate is 50 beats per minute. What is the patient's cardiac output?
1) 6500 ml/min 2) 2500 ml/min 3) 4500 ml/min 4) 5050 ml/min
24. In human heart, the left atrium receives blood from
1) three caval veins 2) four pulmonary veins
3) three pulmonary veins 4) caval veins and coronary sinus
25. Pulmonary circulation carries the blood from
1) right ventricle to left atrium 2) left ventricle to left atrium
3) right ventricle to right atrium 4) left ventricle to right atrium
26. Aortic valve prevents the backward flow of
1) oxygenated blood into the right ventricle
2) deoxygenated blood into the left ventricle
3) oxygenated blood into the left atrium
4) oxygenated blood into the left ventricle
27. Only deoxygenated blood passes through
1) left side of the heart 2) systemic circulation
3) right side of the heart 4) pulmonary circulation
28. The arteries that supply blood to myocardium are located in
1) auriculo ventricular groove 2) inter ventricular groove
3) coronary sulcus 4) auricular appendix
29. Match the following.
List - I List - II
I) AV node A) Pace maker
II) Ligamentum B) Remnant of ductus arteriosum artriosus
III) SA node C) Relay point for action potentials
IV) CAD D) Thrombocytopenia
V) Platelets E) Atherosclerotic heart disease
F) Heart failure
I II III IV V
1) C B E F D
2) C B A E D
3) B A C E D
4) C B F A E
30. Read the following statements.
I) Hepatic portal system contributes for glycogenesis.
II) In the embryonic stages systemic and pulmonary arches are joined by ligamentum arteriosum.
III) Systemic circulation is also called as greater circulation.
IV) In arteries and arterioles two elastic laminae are found on either side of tunica interna.
The correct statements in the above are
1) I, II 2) I, II, III 3) I, III 4) II, IV
31. Bundle of His starts from
1) AV node 2) SA node 3) inter ventricular septum 4) left atrium
32. Systole causes
1) entry of blood into lungs 2) entry of blood into heart
3) exit of blood from heart 4) exit of blood from ventricles
33. Cardiac output is determined by
1) heart rate 2) stroke volume 3) blood flow 4) both 1 and 2
34. Which of the following is not associated with Angina pectoris?
1) chest pain 2) narrowing of blood vessels to heart
3) necrosis of heart tissue 4) can occur in men and women of any age
35. Cardiac output is increased by
1) adrenal medullary hormones 2) thyroxine
3) parasympathetic nervous system 4) both 1 and 2
36. These are the least in number among the the total WBCs
1) acidophils 2) basophils 3) neutrophils 4) monocytes
37. Assertion (A): Ig G can cross the placenta.
Reason (R): Ig G is monomer form of immunoglobulins.
1) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is wrong.
4) A is wrong but R is correct.
38. Which of the following leaves liver and moves towards kidney?
1) NH3 2) H2N C = O- H2N 3) bile 4) glycogen
39. All Bowman's capsules of the kidney are found in
1) pelvis 2) medulla 3) cortex 4) None
40. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by
1) JG cells 2) macula densa cells 3) liver cells 4) heart
41. Fall in the level of plasma proteins in blood leads to
1) cancer 2) hypoxia 3) leukopenia 4) oedema
ANSWERS 1-3, 2-1, 3-2, 4-2, 5-4, 6-2, 7-3, 8-1, 9-1, 10-3, 11-2, 12-1, 13-3, 14-1, 15-3, 16-2, 17-3, 18-2, 19-3, 20-1, 21-4, 22-1, 23-2, 24-2, 25-1, 26-4, 27-3, 28-2, 29-2, 30-3, 31-1, 32-4, 33-4, 34-3, 35-4, 36-2, 37-1, 38-2, 39-3, 40-3, 41-4.
Locomotion and Movement (Musculo Skeletal System)
1. Assertion (A): Rotation of head is facilitated by the joint between atlas and axis.
Reason (R): Odontoid process of atlas is movably fixed in odontoid canal of axis.
a) Both A and R are correct R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are present but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
2. Middle line of Sarcomere shows.
a) Z line b) M - Line c) Troponin - C d) Triad System
3. Assertion (A): Muscle contracts upon stimulation normally when it is relieved from muscle fatigue.
Reason (R): The vein which is taking away blood from the muscle transports accumulated lactic acid from the muscle to the liver.
a) Both A and R are correct R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are present but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
4. At the time of muscle contraction which of the following does not occur?
a) Generation of action potential at sarcolemna
b) Release of Ca++ from troponin c) Sliding of actin over myosin
d) Occurence of repeated cross bridge cycles
5. Match the following
Feature Number
A) Cranial bones 1) 22
B) Floating ribs 2) 7 pairs
C) Hind limb bones 3) 8
D) Vertebro - sternal ribs 4) 30
5) 2 pairs
A B C D
a) 2 4 1 5
b) 4 2 5 1
c) 3 5 4 2
d) 5 3 2 4
6. The locomotory structures of Hydra are
a) Pseudopodia b) Parapodia c) Tentacles d) Suckers
7. Cytoskeletal elements involved in amoeboid movement are
a) Microtubules b) Micro filaments c) Micromeres d) Intermediate filaments
8. Identify the structure not associated with pectoral girdle
a) Acromion process b) Acetabulum
c) Glenoid cavity d) Scapula
9. If a stimulus, several times higher than the threshold stimulus is applied on a muscle fibre, then it will
a) Contract with larger force b) Contract with a smaller force
c) Contract with the same force d) Undergoes tetany
10. Sprain is caused due to the excessive pulling of .....
a) Tendon b) Muscle c) Ligament d) Both 1 & 3
11. Shoulder blade is made up of .....
a) Ilium b) Scapula c) Clavicle d) Humerus
12. Sternum is connected to ribs by
a) Tendon b) Muscle c) Ligament d) Both 1 & 3
13. Which of the following of myosin protein serves as cross bridges?
a) Heads b) Long tail c) Twisted part of heavy chain d) Both 1 & 2
14. Osteoporosis, an age related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to
a) Decreased level of oestrogen
b) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
c) Immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue
d) High concentration of Ca++ and Na++
15. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of
a) Cartilagenous joint b) Synovial joint - rotatory type
c) Saddle joint d) Fibrous joint
16. Isotropic band of muscle cell contains:
a) Actin b) Myosin c) M - line d) Sarcomere
17. Which point of myosin filament has active sites for actin?
a) Head b) Short arm c) Tail d) Neck
18. Each F - actin is a .....
a) Monomeric 'G' actin b) Polymer of meromyosin
c) Polymer of monomeric 'G' actins
d) Monomer of meromyosin
19. This serves as a strong foundation for pelvic girdle.
a) Coccyx b) Ilium c) Sacrum d) Ischium
20. How many bones are present in human skull? And what is the type of joints in it?
a) 22, Synovial b) 29, Amphiarthrosis
c) 28, Diarthrosis d) 22, Synarthrosis
21. Assertion (A): Hensen's disc or H zone of A band is relatively less dark than the edges of A band.
Reason (R): Thin filaments or actin filaments are present in it.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) A is wrong, R is correct
22. Locomotion by streaming of protoplasm is shown by .....
a) Amoeba, paramecium, macrophages
b) Amoeba, macrophages, leucocytes
c) Hydra, macrophages, leucocytes
d) Amoeba, acellular organisms, paramecium
23. Assertion (A): Visceral muscle fibre is a syncytium.
Reason (R): The Straited muscle fibre is multinucleate as it is formed by fusion of embryonic mononucleate myoblasts and nuclei are peripheral in position.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) A is wrong, R is correct
24. Read the following statements:
I) Actin and myosin filaments are called thin and thick filaments respectively.
II) The thick filaments are held together in the middle of dark band by M - line
III) The central part of A band is relatively less dark than the edges
IV) Actin, troponin and tropomyosin are often called 'regulatory proteins'.
The correct statements are:
a) I, II, III b) II, III only c) I, III only d) All
25. Identify the wrongly matched set
a) Sphenoid bone - keystone bone
b) Palatine process - hard palate
c) Zygomatic bones - Cheek bones
d) Nasal conchae - Smallest bones of face
26. The functional unit of skeletal muscle fibre is formed by
a) One complete I - band and two halves of A band
b) One complete I - band and one complete of A band
c) One complete A band and two halves of I band
d) Half part of A - band and half part of I band
27. Assertion (A): Due to rapid activity of a muscle, there occurs oxygen debt.
Reason (R): Pyruvic acid gets accumulated in the absence of oxygen.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R correct but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) A is wrong, R is correct
28. Calcium ions in a myocyte during muscle contraction bind to .....
a) Myosin of thin filaments b) Myosin of thick filaments
c) Troponin of thin filaments d) Tropomyosin of thin filaments
29. The H - zone in the skeleton muscle fibre is due to
a) The Central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filament in A band
b) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of A - band
c) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A - band
d) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A - band
30. Coronal suture is found between
a) Parietal and Squamosal b) Parietal and Pterygoid
c) Parietal and Frontal d) Parietal and Sphenoid
31. Following are the structures in a muscular system
A) Myofibril B) Myofibre C) Sarcomere
D) H - zone Arrange them in ascending order of their complexity
a) A - B - C - D b) C - D - A - B
c) B - A - C - D d) D - C - A - B
32. In Human beings, the cranium is formed by
a) 10 bones of which 2 are paired
b) 8 bones of which 2 are paired
c) 14 bones of which 6 are paired
d) 6 bones of which 3 are paired
33. This facial bone is unpaired
a) Nasal b) Vomer C) Lacrimal d) Palatine
34. Which one is a cartilaginous Joint?
a) Synchondoses b) Symphysis c) Diarthrosis d) Both 1 and 2
35. A Cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field, Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement?
a) pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals b) stemum, femur, tibia, fibula
c) tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia d) femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
36. Fibrous immovable joints are found in
a) Bones of skull b) Bones of limbs
c) Bones of girdles d) Bones of vertebral column
37. The articulation of odontoid process of axis and atlas is an example of
a) Pivot joint b) Synovial joint
c) Ball and socket joint d) Hinge joint
38. Human vertebral formula is .....
a) C7T12L5S5Cd4 b) C7T9L5S4Cd1
c) C7T12L5S1Cd1 d) C7T12L4S4Cd1
39. Match the following
List - I List-II
i) Hip joint A) Pivot joint
ii) Elbow joint B) Fibrous joint
iii) Wrist joint C) Hinge joint
iv) Joint in Thumb D) Gliding joint between carpal and metacarpal
v) Neck Joint E) Ball & Socket joint
F) Saddle joint
I II III IV V
a) E B D C A
b) E C D F A
c) E C B F A
d) D C A F B
40. Acromion process is associated with
a) Collar bone b) Scapula c) Pubis d) ilium
ANSWERS 1-c; 2-b; 3-a; 4-b; 5-c; 6-c; 7-b; 8-b; 9-c; 10-d; 11-b; 12-c; 13-a; 14-a; 15-b; 16-a; 17-a; 18- c; 19-c; 20-d; 21-c; 22-b; 23-d; 24-a; 25-d; 26-c; 27-c; 28-c; 29-a; 30-c; 31-d; 32-b; 33-b; 34-d; 35-c; 36-a; 37-a; 38-c; 39-b; 40-b.
Digestion And Absorption, Breathing and Exchange of Gases
1. If ERV is 1100 ml, RV is 1200 ml and TV is 500 ml, what shall be the FRC?
a) 1600 ml b) 2800 ml c) 2300 ml d) 1200 ml
2. If the TV is 500 ml and breathing rate is 12 per minute, then alveolar ventilation rate is
a) 4000 ml b) 4200 ml c) 2000 ml d) 6000 ml
3. Which of the following is a part of both digestive tract as well as respiratory tract?
a) Trachea b) Larynx c) Nose d) Pharynx
4. When you hold your breath, which of the following first leads to the urge to breath?
a) Falling CO2 b) Rising O2 c) Rising CO2 d) Falling O2
5. Flow of water and blood to the respiratory organs is counter current in these animals
a) Sponges, coclenterates, flatworms b) Pisces
c) Mammals d) Aquatic arthropodes & molluscs
6. Statement I: Man’s voice generally has higher range of pitch than that of a woman
Statement II: Vocal folds in man vibrate faster than those of females
a) II is correct but I is flase b) Both I and II are correct
c) I is correct but II is false d) Both I and II are false
7. Number of laryngeal cartilages, primary bronchi, vocal cards (true plus false), lobes of the lungs (right plus left) respectively in man are
a) 9, 2, 4, 5 b) 2, 2, 2, 2 c) 6, 4, 2, 9 d) 2, 4, 4, 2
8. In fever breathing rate
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Stops d) None
9. Which of the following teeth are lophodont?
a) Incisor and canine b) Canine and premolar
c) Premolar and molar d) Premolar and incisor
10. Which of the following digestive juices has the minimum pH value?
a) Bile b) Gastric juice c) Saliva d) Pancreatic juice
11. The vitamin nicotinamide can be synthesized in our body from ...
a) Tyrosine b) Tryptophan c) Valine d) Phenylalanine
12. Which of the following teeth help in cutting?
a) Molars b) Incisors c) Canines d) Premolars
13. The common passage for swallowing and breathing is
a) Gullet b) Glottis c) Larynx d) Pharynx
14. Below the freezing point the pepsin
a) Becomes over activated b) Gets destroyed
c) Remains unaffected d) Gets inactivated
15. Which of the following is found in the alveoli of lungs?
a) Sensory epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium d) Simple Squamns epithelium
16. In horses, rabbits, hares the cellulose gets digested in the ...
a) Caecum b) Stomach c) Appendix d) Rumen
17. Vermiform appendix is formed of
a) Haemopoietic tissue b) Digestive tissue
c) Lymphoid tissue d) All of these
18. A doctor suggested a person to take ORS, that person might be suffering from
a) Diarrhoea b) Jaundice c) Constipation d) Indigestion
19. Location of Brunner’s glands is
a) Mucosa, duodenum b) Mucosa, ileum
c) Submucosa, duodenum d) Submucosa, ileum
20. Blood capillaries of intestinal villi can not absorb
a) Glucose b) Vitamins c) Amino acids d) Fatty acids and glycerol
21. If CO2 level gets increased in blood it favours
a) Loading of O2 in the blood
b) Unloading of O2 in the blood
c) Decreased availability of O2 to tissues
d) Both a and c
22. Reverse chloride shift occurs during
a) Internal respiration b) External respiration
c) Cellular respiration d) Anaerobic respiration
23. Assertion (A): Passive absorption of food is a slow process.
Reason (R): It does not depend upon the energy.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation to A
c) A is correct, R is wrong
d) A is wrong, R is correct
24. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after normal expiration is called
a) Tidal volume b) Residual volume
c) Functional residual capacity d) Vital capacity
25. Lower molars in human dentition usually have
a) No roots b) Three roots c) Two roots d) Single root
26. Peripheral chemoireceptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery recognize changes in CO2 and H+ concentration and send necessary signals to
a) Pneumatic centre of cerebrum
b) Central chemoreceptors of hypothalamus
c) Respiratory rhythm centre of medulla oblongata
d) Apneustic centre of cerebellum
27. Volume of CO2 carried by 100 ml of deoxygenated blood from tissues to the lungs in the form of bicarbonate ions is about
a) 4 ml b) 2.8 ml c) 1.2 ml d) 5 ml
28. Which of the following gastric cells help indirectly in erythropoiesis?
a) Peptic cells b) Parietal cells c) Goblet neck cells d) Goblet cells
29. The following graph is related to O2- Haemoglobin dissociation curve. Which of the below curves represent enhanced unloading of oxygen in the graph?
a) A b) B c) C d) B and C
30. Choose the set of pancreatic enzymes which play a role in digestion of proteins
A) Aminopeptidase B) Pepsin C) Chymotrypsin
D) Tripeptidase E) Enterokinase F) Nuclease
G) Trypsin H) Carboxypeptidase
a) All except B, E b) C, F, G, H c) C, G, H d) A, C, G, H
31. Select the incorrect statement in the following about the liver.
a) It excretes degraded lipid soluble hormones
b) It converts lactic acid into glucose through glycogenolysis
c) Ornithine cycle occurs in its hepatocytes
d) It produces the protein angiotensinogen
32. Statement A: Any change in pulmonary volume will be reflected in the thoracic cavity.
Statement B: Muscles of ribs and diaphragm can alter the volume of thoracic cavity.
a) Both A and B are false
b) Both A and B are correct
c) A is correct B is false
d) A is false B is correct
33. Choose the wrong statement with reference to hormonal regulation of digestion
a) Gastrin stimulates secretion of HCl
b) CCK stimulates secretion of trypsinogen
c) Secretin stimulates secretion of bicarbonates from pancreas and liver
d) Dietaly lipids stimulate secretion of GIP which increases gastro-intestinal motility
34. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes
a) Oxyntic cells b) Duodenal cells c) Chief cells d) Goblet cells
35. When bicarbonate ions are released from the cytoplasm of RBC into the plasma, the hydrogen ions are received by
a) Oxygen b) Chloride ions c) Haemoglobin d) Plasma proteins
36. Residual volume is
a) Greater than vital capacity b) Greater than tidal volume
c) Lesser than tidal volume d) Greater than inspiratory volume
37. In lungs there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and plasma. Removal of CO2 from blood involves
a) Influx of Cl− into RBC
b) Efflux of Cl− from RBC
c) Influx of HCO3 − ions into RBC
d) Efflux of HCO3 − ions from RBC
38. Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an athlete is 500 ml and 1000 ml respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 ml?
a) 2200 ml b) 2700 ml c) 1500 ml d) 1700 ml
39. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs.
a. Crypts of Lieberkuhn i. Pancreas
b. Glissonn’s capsule ii. Duodenum
c. Islets of Langerhans iii. Small intestine
d. Brunner’s glands iv. Liver
Select the correct option from the following
A B C D A B C D
a) iii iv i ii b) iii ii i iv
c) iii i ii iv d) ii iv i iii
40. Due to increasing air-borne allergen pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to..
a) Proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls
b) Reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes
c) Benign growth on mucus lining of nasal cavity
d) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
41. Which of the following are absorbed in the alimentary canal as such?
a) Albumin of egg b) Polysaccharides
c) Fat soluble vitamins d) Proteins
42. Chyme formed in stomach is further transformed into
a) Chyle b) Collodal material c) Fats d) Emulsion
43. A dental disease is characterized by mottling of teeth due to an ingredient in drinking water, namely
a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Boron d) Mercury
44. Just as hydrochloric acid is for pepsinogen, so is
a) haemoglobin to oxygen b) enterokinase to trypsinogen
c) bile juice to fat d) glucagon to glycogen
ANSWERS: 1-c; 2-b; 3-d; 4-c; 5-b; 6-d; 7-a; 8-a; 9-c; 10-b; 11-b; 12-b; 13-d; 14-d; 15-d; 16-a; 17-c; 18-a; 19-c; 20-d; 21-b; 22-b; 23-a; 24-c; 25-c; 26-c; 27-b; 28-b; 29-c; 30-c; 31-b; 32-d; 33-d; 34-d; 35-c; 36-b; 37-c; 38-c; 39-a; 40-d; 41-c; 42-a; 43-a; 44-b.
